"O L-RD, Who are my power and my strength and my refuge in the day of trouble, to You nations will come from the ends of the earth and say, 'Only lies have our fathers handed down to us, emptiness in which there is nothing of any avail! Can a man make gods for himself, and they are no gods? 'Therefore, behold I let them know; at this time I will let them know My power and My might, and they shall know that My Name is the L-RD".
Jeremiah 16:19-21

 

“He sent redemption to his people; He has commanded his covenant forever. Holy and awesome is His Name.”
Psalms 111:19 (NRS)

Jeremiah 31:31 Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: [32] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day [that] I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was a husband unto them, saith the LORD: [33] But this [shall be] the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their G-d, and they shall be my people. [34] And they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more. (KJV)

It is the Christian contention that with the death of Jesus the New Covenant promised in Jeremiah came into effect. But let’s look at the fairly obvious faults to this claim:

1) The first verse of the prophecy: “Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:” Was the House of Israel present at the time of Jesus’ death? No, they most certainly were not. They’d been exiled hundreds of years previously, and had not returned. The exact location of those tribes is still lost to us. Yet this verse signifies that the two kingdoms will be reunited. Are gentiles even mentioned or hinted at as being involved in this scenario?

2) The keyword involved here is not a new LAW, but a new COVENANT. A covenant is an agreement. The Lord never said that any of the Law would change, or that the requirements that came with that Law would change. G-d was simply stating that there will be a renewal of His covenant with the people Israel, and that when that day comes, the Jewish people will no longer falter while walking in G-d’s path.

3) Take note of the last verse, “And they shall teach no more every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.” Has this come to pass? Does everyone “Know the Lord?” Most certainly not. Those who do not belong to Judaism, Christianity, or Islam comprise one third of this planet. They don’t “Know the Lord!” Clearly, the New Covenant has not yet taken place.

4) This passage is referenced in the Epistle to the Hebrews. The New Covenant is not something that you need to be told about when it’s transpired. That’s the key element of Messianic prophecy. The events described are so earth-shaking that no one would fail to see them. It becomes obvious to everyone. You shouldn’t need to be told that it happened. The event speaks for itself.

5) The New Covenant is also misquoted in the Epistle to the Hebrews. While this is an argument that’s slightly different from that of the above four notes, it most certainly is worth examining.

The author of the Epistle to the Hebrews did some creative quoting. Let’s examine it closely:

Hebrews 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: [9] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in My covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. [10] For this [is] the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a G-d, and they shall be to me a people: [11] And they shall not teach every man his neighbor, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest. [12] For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more. [13] In that He saith,! A new [covenant], He hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old [is] ready to vanish away. (KJV)
In Hebrews 8:9, while quoting Jeremiah 31:32, the author changed important words in the verse. The clause of Jeremiah 31:32 (KJV) reads,”although I was a husband unto them, saith the LORD:”

Hebrews misquoted Jeremiah’s words and instead wrote, “and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.”

Am I the only one who is taken aback by this? The first thought is that this is a simple case of mistranslation. However, when you look at the changes themselves, that possibility rules itself out. If “although I was a husband unto them, saith the LORD” had changed to something completely off the wall like “although I wore brickbat overalls with them” or something equally absurd, I’d be able to buy into the mistranslation theory. This is clearly not the case. The words were changed to alter the meaning of the chapter. This was clearly done with premeditated intent. This is a serious charge, but this is a serious crime! Whenever I find a mistranslation in the King James Bible, or any other Christian Bible for that matter, it is oftentimes a mistranslation that leans toward Christian dogma?

This crime is further advanced by Hebrews 8:13. This verse makes clear what the motivation was behind the mistranslation. “In that He saith, A new [covenant], He hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old [is] ready to vanish away.” After reading the changing of words, what are we to think of this verse? It has already been shown how the Christian interpretation of the New Covenant in Jeremiah is faulty. This verse was meant to further the falsehood.

So, we should say to those who believe that the New Covenant has come to pass: if we’re under the New Covenant, you can stop preaching the word, because obviously the task has been completed. You are performing an unneeded task. The entire world knows the Lord, doesn’t it?

The Covenant of Sinai is Eternal

Daniel 9:4 And I prayed unto the LORD my G-d, and made my confession, and said, O Lord, the great and dreadful G-d, keeping the covenant and mercy to them that love him, and to them that keep his commandments; (KJV)

Nehemiah 1:5 And said, I beseech thee, O LORD G-d of heaven, the great and terrible G-d, that keepeth covenant and mercy for them that love him and observe his commandments: (KJV)

1 Chronicles 16:13 O ye seed of Israel his servant, ye children of Jacob, his chosen ones. [14] He is the LORD our G-d; his judgments are in all the earth. [15] Be ye mindful always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations; [16] Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; [17] And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant. (KJV)

Isaiah 24:5 The earth also is defiled under the inhabitants thereof; because they have transgressed the laws, changed the ordinance, broken the everlasting covenant. (KJV)

Copyright © 2001, Michael Levy for http://www.MessiahTruth.com.
All rights reserved.

 

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