"O L-RD, Who are my power and my strength and my refuge in the day of trouble, to You nations will come from the ends of the earth and say, 'Only lies have our fathers handed down to us, emptiness in which there is nothing of any avail! Can a man make gods for himself, and they are no gods? 'Therefore, behold I let them know; at this time I will let them know My power and My might, and they shall know that My Name is the L-RD".
Jeremiah 16:19-21

What is the value of God indicating his pleasure in Jesus, if Jesus was himself? And what did Jesus supposedly achieve here, if he was God and it was impossible for him to sin, or do wrong? Was God taking pleasure in himself?

Matthew 3:17

And suddenly a voice came from heaven, saying, “This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”


If Jesus was fully God, why could only the Father, and not Jesus, grant that the two sons of Zebedee sit at the right and left of Jesus?

Matthew 20:20-23

The mother of the sons of Zebedee… said to him 21 [Jesus], “Command that these two sons of mine may sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your kingdom.” 22 But Jesus answered and said…, 23“You will drink my cup, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.”


If the Father and Jesus were of the same substance, such a prayer would have been meaningless. Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will, out of necessity, would have been that of the Father’s.

Matthew 26:39

Going a little farther, he [Jesus] fell on his face to the ground and prayed, saying, “O my Father, if it is possible, may this cup be taken from me. Yet not as I will, but as you will.


If Jesus was God, why would he need to request from God legions of angels? Is there anything God lacks that He must request from another?

Matthew 26:53

Do you think I cannot call on my Father, and he will at once put at my disposal more than twelve legions of angels?


If, as Trinitarians insist, Jesus was God, why did Jesus rebuke the man for addressing him as “Good Teacher”? (Jesus believed th at the title “good” was appropriate for God alone, who he considered the only standard of goodness).

Interestingly, once the man was corrected, thereafter he only referred to Jesus as “Teacher.”

Mark 10:17-20

If, as Trinitarians insist, Jesus was God, why did Jesus rebuke the man for addressing him as “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life”? 18 And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call me good? No one is good except God alone.” 19“You know the commandments: ‘Do not murder…’” 20And he said to him, “Teacher, I have kept all these things from my youth up.”


If Jesus was coequal with the Father, how could the Father have information that Jesus lacked?      Moreover, if, as some Trinitarians suggest, the son was limited by his human nature, why didn’t the Holy Spirit know?

Mark 13:32

“But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the son, but the Father.”


Yet Jesus said, “The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him.” (John 13:16) Jesus said on numerous occasions that, “the Father… hath sent me.” (John 5:37,6:37) The Holy Ghost was also sent by the Father (John 14:26) and Jesus (John 16:7), thus making Jesus subordinate to the Father and the Holy Ghost inferior to both the Father and Jesus.
Moreover, God is by nature invisible and never seen, Jesus was of course seen. John 1:18, I John 4:12, I Tim. 6:16

John 5:37

“And the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. His voice you have never heard, his form you have never seen.”

In John 8:17-18, Jesus quotes from the Law the necessity that evidence, to be valid, must be agreed upon by two witnesses. Jesus states that the two witnesses are himself and God. Two, not one. If Jesus was God, there was only one witness, and if Jesus says there are two, then he and God are not one.

John 8:17-18

“In your own Law it is written that the testimony of two men is valid. 18I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father, who sent me.”

John 10:30

“I, and my Father are one.” 31Again the Jews picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus said to them “I have shown you many great miracles from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” 32“We are not stoning you for any of these,” replied the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God. ” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are gods?'” (see Psalm 82:6)


If God and Jesus are “one in essence,” as the Trinity doctrine says, how could Jesus’ accord, or will, be different from that of his Father? How can Jesus’ privilege not be the same as God? Moreover, if Jesus was the same as God, why would God have to send or command God to do anything?

John 12:49

For I did not speak of my own accord, but the Father who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it.

This verse speaks for itself.

John 14:28

“…I [Jesus] go unto the Father, for my father is greater than I.”

Here Jesus insists that the Father is the “only true God.” The Greek word used here for “only” is monos, which is meant to exclude all others. Clearly, the Father cannot be “the only true God” if there are two others who are God to the same degree as he is.

John 17:3

And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, Whom thou hast sent.

If Jesus was God, why would he tell Mary that he considered her Father as his Father, and her God as his God? In Revelations 3:12, after the crucifixion, we continue to see Jesus calling the Father “my God.” But never in the Christian Bible is the Father reported to refer to Jesus as “my God,” nor does either the Father or Jesus refer to the Holy Spirit as “my God.”

John 20:17

Jesus saith unto her [Mary], “Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father. But go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.”


Did Paul Believe In
Doctrine of the Trinity?


Paul insists that only the Father is declared to be the one and only God. In Ephesians 1:17 Paul is still unaware of the Trinity when he says, “That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ…”

I Corinthians 8:4

…and that is none other God but one. 5For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there may be many gods, and many lords,) 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.


This verse does not depict Jesus as coequal with God. On the contrary, God is of superior rank to Jesus. Moreover, this statement reveals that the New Testament did not consider Jesus to be equal with God even after the ascension. Paul wrote these words around 55 C.E. — long after the crucifixion.

I Corinthians 11:3

But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.

Here Paul unambiguously insists that Jesus was subordinate to God as His “subject.” Throughout the New Testament it is claimed that God bestowed authority upon Jesus – never the other way around.

I Corinthians 15:28

When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that God may be all in all.

As mentioned above, this concept is restated many times throughout the New Testament: the Father is Jesus’ God — never the other way around (see also Matt. 4:7, 27:46; Rom. 15:6, II Cor. 1:3, I Pet. 1:3; Rev. 1:6, 3:12 (four times).

I Peter 1:3

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ…


If the earliest Christians believed in the Trinity, why doesn’t the New Testament ever refer to the Father or the Holy Spirit as the “firstborn of all creation?” Understandably, the New Testament would never refer to the Father as “firstborn” because early Christianity considered the Father alone eternal.

Colossians 1:15

He [Jesus] is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.

The fact that Paul clearly distinguishes between God and Jesus places considerable strain on Trinitarianism.

I Timothy 2:5

For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.

Consider how the temptation of Jesus is portrayed throughout the Gospels. The New Testament emphatically states “Jesus was tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.” But the Church’s claim that Jesus is God creates insurmountable contradictions: Temptation without the possibility of falling to sin is meaningless. If Jesus is God, it was impossible for him to sin, and it makes no sense to say he was tempted.

Moreover, James 1:13 states that God cannot be tempted!

Hebrews 4:15

For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin.

Why would God need to beg and cry to God to save him from death? Moreover, if the author of Hebrews considered Jesus God, why does Hebrews 5:8 insist that Jesus learned obedience from suffering? Is there anything God does not know and must learn through experience?

Hebrews 5:7

[Jesus] offered up both prayers and supplications with loud crying and tears to the one who was able to save him from death, and he was heard. 8Although he was a son, he learned obedience from the things he suffered.

Sincerely yours,

Rabbi Tovia Singer


© Copyright Tovia Singer 2011


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