"O L-RD, Who are my power and my strength and my refuge in the day of trouble, to You nations will come from the ends of the earth and say, 'Only lies have our fathers handed down to us, emptiness in which there is nothing of any avail! Can a man make gods for himself, and they are no gods? 'Therefore, behold I let them know; at this time I will let them know My power and My might, and they shall know that My Name is the L-RD".
Jeremiah 16:19-21

The Challenge: Simply & honestly answer these questions:

WITHOUT taking anything out of context, mistranslating, or imposing a pre-conceived notion. (All chapter and verse numbers are according to Christian bibles.)

Why does the subject of 2 Sam. 7.14 “commit iniquity,” if, according to Hebrews 1.5, this is Jesus?

Why does the speaker in Psalms 41.4 say, “I have sinned against Thee,” if, according to John 13.18, this is Jesus?

Why does the speaker in Psalms 69.5 mention his “folly” and his “wrongs” if, according to John 15.25, John 2.17, Romans 15.3, and John 19.28, this is Jesus?

Why is the speaker in Psalms 69.31 (who we have already established is Jesus) declaring that praise and thanksgiving will please God better than a sacrifice??????? Of all places for Jesus to bring this up (which would be strange enough in any event), isn’t this the strangest, right when he’s on the cross??????

Why does God, in Jer. 31:29-30, make a point of stressing that “everyone will die for his own iniquity” – immediately before introducing the new covenant, whereby Jesus will die for everyone else’s iniquity? Isn’t that a rather strange way for the “tutor to lead us to Christ?”

When does the new covenant of Jer. 31:31 come into effect? If it was 2,000 years ago, why hasn’t the first 3/4 of verse 34 happened yet?

Why will there be sin sacrifices when the messiah comes, when the New Testament is adamant that there won’t be? (Hebrews 9:28; Heb. 10:10,12,14,18; Ezekiel 3:18,19,21,22,25; Ezek.44: 27, 29; Ezek. 45:17,20,22,23,25)

Why is Torah law going forth from Zion in the messianic age, in the sight of all the nations of the world, instead of Jesus, if the law is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Isaiah 2.3, Micah 4.2)

Why are the Jews keeping (DOING) the Torah law in the messianic age, if it is a curse and Jesus has fulfilled and replaced it? (Ezek. 37.24)

Why is no one who is uncircumcised IN THE FLESH allowed to enter the temple in the messianic age, if “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision means anything,” according to Paul? (Gal.5.6, Ezek. 44.7) Whose opinion should I trust, Paul’s or God’s?

Why does “forever” have an expiration date in Christianity? (Romans 10.4; Ps. 119: 44, 111, 152, 160, 172, 142; Deut. 29.29)

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage if he did not have a human father? Can the “Holy Spirit” be of the seed of David?

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Joseph, if Joseph came through the cursed line of Jeconiah? (Jer. 22:28-30, Matt. 1.11,12)

How can Jesus be qualified to be the messiah through Davidic lineage, even through Mary, if she came from Nathan, the wrong son of David, as well as from the cursed line? (Luke 3:31, 1 Chron. 22:9,10, Luke 3:27)

How could both Matthew’s and Luke’s genealogies be correct, and divinely inspired, even if they are of two different people, if they diverge (at Nathan and Solomon) and then come back together (at Shealtiel)? How can two brothers have the same grandchildren???

Why don’t the genealogies in the New Testament agree with each other, or with 1 Chronicles 3, which came first and CANNOT be incorrect?

Why is Paul so anxious for you to not study the genealogies? (1 Tim.1:4, Titus 3:9-11)

Why is Hebrews 8.9 wrong about what God said in Jer. 31.32?

Why is Hebrews 10.5 wrong about what God said in Psalm 40.6?

Why is 2 Corinthians 3 wrong about what God said in Exodus 34.29-35?

Why is John 19.37 wrong about what God said in Zech 12.10?

Why are Romans 9.33 and 2 Pet. 2.8 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 28.16?

Why is Romans 10.6-8 wrong about what God said in Deut. 30.12-14? Why does it leave out Deut. 30.11, and the last half of verses 12, 13, and 14???

Why is Romans 11:26-27 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 59:20-21?

Why is Matt. 12.21 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 42.4? Why does he leave out what it really says – “He will not be disheartened or crushed until he has established justice in the earth”?

Why is Matt. 1.12 wrong about what God said in 1 Chron. 3.19?

Why is Matt. 2.6 wrong about what God said in Micah 5.2?

Why is Luke 4:18-19 wrong about what God said in Isaiah 61:1-2?

In Romans 9:24-26, why does Paul leave out the first part of Hosea 1.10, which tells us that the verses he is quoting (the second half of Hosea 1.10, and Hosea 2.23), refer to the sons of Israel?

Why does Matt. 2.15 leave out the first half of Hosea 11.1, which says that Israel is God’s son?

Where in the Hebrew scriptures is the verse, “And he shall be called a Nazarene,” quoted in Matthew 2.23?

How can it be possible that the holy and inspired men of the New Testament were so ignorant of the Hebrew scriptures?

Why doesn’t Jesus himself know his own scripture, if he’s God and he wrote it? (Math. 23.35; Zech 1.1,2; 2 Chron 24.20,21)

Why is Jesus wrong in Math. 5.43 about what God said in Lev. 19.18?

Why does Jesus change God’s law (Math. 5.32, Luke 16.18 – declaring every legally divorced woman an adulteress, and every man married to a legally divorced woman an adulterer), if “I did not come to abolish the law,” and “whoever annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches others, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven?” (Math. 5.17,19)

Why do most Christian translators lie about what God said in Hosea 14.2, and change His words, “take away all iniquity… that we may present our lips as bulls” (demonstrating that prayer substitutes for sacrifice) to “… the fruit of our lips?”

Why do Christians never mention verses like Hosea 14.2 or 1 Kings 8:44-52 or 2 Sam 12:13 or Lev. 5:11-13 or Ps. 32.5 or Isaiah 6.6-7 which demonstrate that one does not need a blood sacrifice to have their sins forgiven, or verses like Proverbs 21.3 or Psalms 40.6 or Hosea 6.6 or Psalms 69:30-31 or 1 Sam. 15.22 which say clearly that God actually PREFERS other methods of atonement to blood sacrifice, or Jeremiah 7:22-23 which goes so far as to say that God NEVER EVEN COMMANDED US ABOUT SACRIFICES???

Why are there numerous stories in the torah of people who sinned, and were forgiven through prayer and repentance – WITHOUT A SACRIFICE, such as David in 2 Sam 12:13, or the city of Nineveh in Jonah – and not a single story, ever, of someone who sinned and gave a sacrifice in order to be forgiven?

How can Jesus be both the high priest (per Paul in Hebrews), who comes from the tribe of Levi, and the messiah, who comes from the tribe of Judah?

How can Jesus be the Passover lamb for the gentiles, especially the uncircumcised, if outsiders were forbidden to partake of it? (Ex. 12:43,45,48)

Why is the New Testament so concerned about the laws of the paschal lamb when it comes to the 2nd half of Ex. 12.46 (see Jn. 19.36), but not at all concerned with these laws when it comes to Ex. 12: 3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,44, the first half of 46, or 48?

What good is Jesus as a sin sacrifice to the intentional sinner, since (with one exception, Lev. 6.2,3) the sin sacrifices were only for the unintentional sinner? (Lev. 4: 2,13,22,27; 5:15,18)

How can Zech. 12.10 be referring to Jesus’ crucifixion, as John 19.37 says it is, when Zechariah is clearly describing an end-time apocalyptic war that has not yet taken place?

How can Zechariah be making a “dual” prophecy, when according to the Christians, this passage refers to God being pierced? Is he going to be pierced again when he returns in glory?

When was the last supper – the seder night (the first night of passover) or the night before? (Matt. 26.17-19, Mark 14.12-16, Luke 14.7-15, John 13.1-2)

When did Jesus die – the first day of Passover or the day before? (Matt. 26, Mark 14, Luke 22, John 18.28, 19.14)

Why did God, in Jer. 31.16, tell Rachel that her children would return, if He was referring to the dead children in Matthew 2.16? Were they going to come back to life?

Why are the nations putting their hands on their mouth in Micah 7.16, much like in Isaiah 52.15? What is it that they’re seeing and being ashamed of?

Why did the church put an unnatural chapter break between Isaiah 52.15 and 53.1?

Why did the Christian translators remove the two plural references to the servant in Isaiah 53.8 and 9 and replace them with a singular form?

Why does the servant in Isaiah 53.10 have physical children (“zera”/seed) if it refers to Jesus?

If “zera” really means spiritual children in Is. 53, why do all Christians agree it means physical offspring in every other place in the bible that it is used to refer to people?

If “zera”/seed really means spiritual children, which ONE of the world’s Christians is the true child of Jesus, since according to Paul in Gal. 3.16, “seed” refers to only one person?

Why are there many clear prophecies which state that Israel is despised and afflicted, but none which say this about the messiah?

Why is the automatic Christian response to the problems of Isaiah 53 ALWAYS to quote the rabbis they otherwise despise and mock and whose writings they don’t believe in, that Jesus berated and Paul called “men who turn away from the truth” (Titus 1.14)?

Why did the disciples not understand what Jesus was talking about in Luke 18:31-34 and Mark 9:32, if it was always common knowledge among the Jews that the messiah was to suffer, die, and rise from the dead?

Why did Jesus make predictions that didn’t come true, if that’s a sure sign of a false prophet? (Math. 16:38, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27, Deut. 18:20-22)?

Why does God the Father know something Jesus doesn’t know (Mark 13.32) if Jesus IS the Everlasting Father, and the Mighty God, according to Isaiah 9.6?

Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “moshiach” correctly as “an anointed one” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Daniel 9?

Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “ca’ari” correctly as “like a lion” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 22.17?

Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the words “y’mei olom” correctly as “days of old” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Micah 5.2?

Why do the writers of the New Testament translate the word “bar” correctly to “cleanliness” or “purity” every time it appears in the Torah, except for in Psalm 2.12? Why is it that 5 verses earlier King David knew the correct word for “son,” but not in verse 12?

Why don’t the writers of the New Testament translate “ha’almah” as “virgin” in Proverbs 30.19, if that’s what it means? (What the four “ways” in vs. 19 have in common is that they leave no trace, as evidenced by vs. 20 that follows.)

Why did the Septuagint authors use “parthenos” in Genesis to describe Dina who had just been raped, if it means virgin according to messianic authorities?

If Isaiah 7.14 refers to the virgin birth of Jesus, via “dual prophecy” (since it obviously can’t refer to him via the context), then whose was the other virgin birth that occurred at the time of the prophecy?

* Why are there numerous prophecies about gentiles bowing and apologizing to the Jews in the last days, and admitting they (the gentiles) have been wrong, and not a single prophecy the other way around – of the Jews apologizing to the gentiles – if it is indeed the Jews who are wrong?

* Why are we commanded NOWHERE in the Jewish scriptures to believe in the messiah when he comes, if our salvation depends on it?

* Why do all the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled deal only with the PERSON of the messiah, which the Torah barely mentions, and have nothing to with the ACCOMPLISHMENTS of the messiah, which the Torah is very specific about?

* Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that are of no practical advantage to anyone, and do nothing to improve the quality of anyone’s life, while all of the prophecies that he did NOT yet fulfill are all things that will be of tremendous benefit to every individual on the planet, and all of mankind as a whole? (For example, how does a virgin birth that happened 2000 years ago, or Jesus’ being thirsty and being offered vinegar, or being born in Bethlehem, or being killed with a robber, or riding on a donkey, etc… help me out at all? How do any of these “fulfillments” solve a single problem in my life, or anyone’s? Yet, on the other hand, when there is world peace, and all the evil people are gone, and all the sick are healed, etc… now THERE are some messianic prophecies we can surely use. )

* Why is it that all of the prophecies that Jesus supposedly fulfilled are all things that CANNOT BE PROVEN, while all of the prophecies that Jesus did NOT yet fulfill, on the other hand, are all things that COULD NOT BE DENIED IF HE HAD fulfilled them – even just ONE of them?

* Why is it that the ONLY way to fit Jesus into the torah’s messianic prophecies is through the use of extreme force? Why is one or more of the following methods ALWAYS required? 1) taking verses out of context, 2) mistranslating, 3) placing a 2,000 year gap (at least) in the middle of a verse – totally unjustified by the context – i.e. sweeping any failure of Jesus to fulfill the scriptures under the rug of the 2nd coming, or 4) making verses up? Why can’t the torah ever just ONCE mention Jesus clearly, if it’s so important that we believe in him?


If God changed his mind about so many crucial things He said in the Torah, as demonstrated above, and now wants us to believe in Jesus, why didn’t he have the decency to come down to ALL of us, and endorse Jesus in person to make it clear to us, as he came down to all 3 million of us on Mt. Sinai to endorse Moses, to make sure we would believe in the Torah forever? (Ex. 19:9.11,17, Ex. 24.17)

Why does God break one of His own commandments, “You shall not place a stumbling block before the blind” (Lev. 19.14), since according to 2 Cor. 3.14 and 4.4 I am blind, and according to Rom. 9.32, 1 Peter 2.8, and 1 Cor 1.23, the above challenges are all part of “a stumbling stone?”

Why does God trick us, and present us with such tremendous difficulties as the above questions, and then throw us into hell for rejecting an apparent false god, who’s really not false, if “God our Savior desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth?” (1 Tim. 2.4)

Why is the Christian God such a sadist? And why do Christians expect Jews to want to embrace such a God?

This list may be copied and passed around, as long as credit is given to [email protected], who gives at least half of the credit to Rabbi Tovia Singer.

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{ 5 comments… read them below or add your own }

Larry October 7, 2012 at 3:29 pm

It is very difficult to give up what you have invested so much time in.  Catholics are baptized at birth. By the time they are exposed to truth they have been baptized, received first communion, reconcillation, and ConfIrmation.  These sacraments are based somehow only on the new testment.  As an ex catholic I think I was in my thirties when I was first exposed to teachings against Paul.  That was my beginning.  It took years for me to have the courage to give up Christianity.  I still have not told my parents or brother and sister.  They would dis own me. people up the good work and reaching out to people.  Truth seekers are out there.  

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Dave & Yvonne October 21, 2012 at 5:56 pm

Yes Larry it is very hard to accept that you have been deceived and lied too all your life – the your is in all of our lives!! It does take courage because of all the threats ….none of them true!! Anything I can do to help like let of steam or just commiserate feel free to write!!

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Larry October 8, 2012 at 1:28 am

sorry—that would be,,    Keep up the good work.

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George November 11, 2012 at 8:59 am

why do Jews still hold true to the law.?. Genesis 49;8-10 Judah U are he whom Ur brothers shall praise, Ur hand shall be on the neck of Ur enemies, Ur fathers children shall bow before U.,9 Judah is a lions whelp,for the prey, my son, U have gone up he bows down, he lies down as a lion, and as a lion, who shall rouse him?10 THE SCEPTRE SHALL NOT DEPART FROM JUDAH, NOR A LAW-GIVER FROM BETWEEN HIS FEET,UNTIL SHILOM COMES, AND TO HIM SHALL BE THE OBEDIENCE OF ALL PEOPLE…That why Jew hold true to the LAW of YAH,, And i praise u Judah well done.. The ten tribed Kingdom was the one to which the national title ISRAEL was given. For truly.,the name ISRAEL was named on the sons of Joseph.,Gen 48;16 Wherever they are, the Bible calls them by the name ISRAEL., to the world their identity today is lost., but the Biblical prophecy.,it is they-not the Jews-who are called ISRAEL., EPHRAIMITE AND MANASSEH,, The United States and Great Britain in Prophecy By HERBERT W ARMSTRONG.. Enjoy.

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drydend January 28, 2013 at 10:43 am

Interpretation is always key to understanding a text. You’ve chosen Herbert Armstrong or his church to be the interpreter of the Hebrew Bible. As long as you use that lens, you will not understand why the Jews hold to the law. And what point is there arguing the point as long as you hold to this interpretation?

Before Herbert Armstrong, the Jews had held a long standing tradition of preserving the scriptures and the interpretation of it from the time of Moses, not just from the time of Herbert Armstrong, a man whose followers were ignorant of any such heritage or responsibility beforehand. If you want to give the Jews a chance, and not see them as false-Israel, then you may get a chance to see things differently and correctly. Until then, not much more can be said.

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